Question # 1
| A systems administrator wants to reduce the number of failed patch deployments in an
organization. The administrator discovers that system owners modify systems or
applications in an ad hoc manner. Which of the following is the best way to reduce the
number of failed patch deployments?
| | A. Compliance tracking | | B. Situational awareness | | C. Change management | | D. Quality assurance |
C. Change management
Explanation:
To reduce the number of failed patch deployments, the systems administrator should
implement a robust change management process. Change management ensures that all
modifications to systems or applications are planned, tested, and approved before
deployment. This systematic approach reduces the risk of unplanned changes that can
cause patch failures and ensures that patches are deployed in a controlled and predictable
manner.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Emphasizes the importance of change
management in maintaining system integrity and ensuring successful patch
deployments.
ITIL (Information Technology Infrastructure Library) Framework: Provides best
practices for change management in IT services.
"The Phoenix Project" by Gene Kim, Kevin Behr, and George Spafford: Discusses
the critical role of change management in IT operations and its impact on system
stability and reliability.
Question # 2
A security engineer performed a code scan that resulted in many false positives. The security engineer must find a solution that improves the quality of scanning results before application deployment. Which of the following is the best solution? | | A. Limiting the tool to
a specific coding language and tuning the rule set | | B. Configuring branch
protection rules and dependency checks | | C. Using an application
vulnerability scanner to identify coding flaws in production | | D. Performing updates on code libraries before code development |
A. Limiting the tool to
a specific coding language and tuning the rule set
To improve the quality of code scanning results and reduce false positives, the best solution is to limit the tool to a specific coding language and fine-tune the rule set. By configuring the code scanning tool to focus on the specific language used in the application, the tool can more accurately identify relevant issues and reduce the number of false positives. Additionally, tuning the rule set ensures that the tool's checks are appropriate for the application's context, further improving the accuracy of the scan results. References: CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Discusses best practices for configuring code scanning tools, including language-specific tuning and rule set adjustments. "Secure Coding: Principles and Practices" by Mark G. Graff and Kenneth R. van Wyk: Highlights the importance of customizing code analysis tools to reduce false positives. OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project): Provides guidelines for configuring and tuning code scanning tools to improve accuracy.
Question # 3
| A company receives reports about misconfigurations and vulnerabilities in a third-party
hardware device that is part of its released products. Which of the following solutions is the
best way for the company to identify possible issues at an earlier stage? | | A. Performing vulnerability tests on each device delivered by the providers | | B. Performing regular red-team exercises on the vendor production line
| | C. Implementing a monitoring process for the integration between the application and the
vendor appliance | | D. Implementing a proper supply chain risk management program |
D. Implementing a proper supply chain risk management program
Explanation:
Addressing misconfigurations and vulnerabilities in third-party hardware requires a
comprehensive approach to manage risks throughout the supply chain. Implementing a
proper supply chain risk management (SCRM) program is the most effective solution as it
encompasses the following:
Holistic Approach: SCRM considers the entire lifecycle of the product, from initial
design through to delivery and deployment. This ensures that risks are identified
and managed at every stage.
Vendor Management: It includes thorough vetting of suppliers and ongoing
assessments of their security practices, which can identify and mitigate
vulnerabilities early.
Regular Audits and Assessments: A robust SCRM program involves regular audits
and assessments, both internally and with suppliers, to ensure compliance with
security standards and best practices.
Collaboration and Communication: Ensures that there is effective communication
and collaboration between the company and its suppliers, leading to faster
identification and resolution of issues.
Other options, while beneficial, do not provide the same comprehensive risk management:
A. Performing vulnerability tests on each device delivered by the providers: While
useful, this is reactive and only addresses issues after they have been delivered.
B. Performing regular red-team exercises on the vendor production line: This can
identify vulnerabilities but is not as comprehensive as a full SCRM program.
C. Implementing a monitoring process for the integration between the application
and the vendor appliance: This is important but only covers the integration phase,
not the entire supply chain.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
NIST Special Publication 800-161, "Supply Chain Risk Management Practices for
Federal Information Systems and Organizations"
ISO/IEC 27036-1:2014, "Information technology — Security techniques —
Information security for supplier relationships"
Question # 4
Audit findings indicate several user endpoints are not utilizing full disk encryption During me remediation process, a compliance analyst reviews the testing details for the endpoints and notes the endpoint device configuration does not support full disk encryption Which of the following is the most likely reason me device must be replaced' | | A. The HSM is outdated
and no longer supported by the manufacturer | | B. The vTPM was not
properly initialized and is corrupt. | | C. The HSM is vulnerable
to common exploits and a firmware upgrade is needed | | D. The motherboard was
not configured with a TPM from the OEM supplier | | E. The HSM does not
support sealing storage |
D. The motherboard was
not configured with a TPM from the OEM supplier
The most likely reason the device must be replaced is that the motherboard was not configured with a TPM (Trusted Platform Module) from the OEM (Original Equipment Manufacturer) supplier. Why TPM is Necessary for Full Disk Encryption: Hardware-Based Security: TPM provides a hardware-based mechanism to store encryption keys securely, which is essential for full disk encryption. Compatibility: Full disk encryption solutions, such as BitLocker, require TPM to ensure that the encryption keys are securely stored and managed. Integrity Checks: TPM enables system integrity checks during boot, ensuring that the device has not been tampered with. Other options do not directly address the requirement for TPM in supporting full disk encryption: A. The HSM is outdated: While HSM (Hardware Security Module) is important for security, it is not typically used for full disk encryption. B. The vTPM was not properly initialized: vTPM (virtual TPM) is less common and not typically a reason for requiring hardware replacement. C. The HSM is vulnerable to common exploits: This would require a firmware upgrade, not replacement of the device. E. The HSM does not support sealing storage: Sealing storage is relevant but not the primary reason for requiring TPM for full disk encryption. References: CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide "Trusted Platform Module (TPM) Overview," Microsoft Documentation "BitLocker Deployment Guide," Microsoft Documentation
Question # 5
A security engineer is given the following requirements:
• An endpoint must only execute Internally signed applications
• Administrator accounts cannot install unauthorized software.
• Attempts to run unauthorized software must be logged
Which of the following best meets these requirements?
| | A. Maintaining appropriate account access through directory management and controls | | B. Implementing a CSPM platform to monitor updates being pushed to applications | | C. Deploying an EDR solution to monitor and respond to software installation attempts | | D. Configuring application control with blocked hashes and enterprise-trusted root
certificates
|
D. Configuring application control with blocked hashes and enterprise-trusted root
certificates
Explanation:
To meet the requirements of only allowing internally signed applications,
preventing unauthorized software installations, and logging attempts to run unauthorized
software, configuring application control with blocked hashes and enterprise-trusted root
certificates is the best solution. This approach ensures that only applications signed by
trusted certificates are allowed to execute, while all other attempts are blocked and logged.
It effectively prevents unauthorized software installations by restricting execution to preapproved applications.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Describes application control mechanisms and
the use of trusted certificates to enforce security policies.
NIST Special Publication 800-53, "Security and Privacy Controls for Information
Systems and Organizations": Recommends application whitelisting and execution
control for securing endpoints.
"The Application Security Handbook" by Mark Dowd, John McDonald, and Justin
Schuh: Covers best practices for implementing application control and managing
trusted certificates
Question # 6
| A software company deployed a new application based on its internal code repository
Several customers are reporting anti-malware alerts on workstations used to test the
application Which of the following is the most likely cause of the alerts? | | A. Misconfigured code commit | | B. Unsecure bundled libraries | | C. Invalid code signing certificate | | D. Data leakage |
B. Unsecure bundled libraries
Explanation:
The most likely cause of the anti-malware alerts on customer workstations is unsecure
bundled libraries. When developing and deploying new applications, it is common for
developers to use third-party libraries. If these libraries are not properly vetted for security,
they can introduce vulnerabilities or malicious code.
Why Unsecure Bundled Libraries?
Third-Party Risks: Using libraries that are not secure can lead to malware
infections if the libraries contain malicious code or vulnerabilities.
Code Dependencies: Libraries may have dependencies that are not secure,
leading to potential security risks.
Common Issue: This is a frequent issue in software development where libraries
are used for convenience but not properly vetted for security.
Other options, while relevant, are less likely to cause widespread anti-malware alerts:
A. Misconfigured code commit: Could lead to issues but less likely to trigger antimalware alerts.
C. Invalid code signing certificate: Would lead to trust issues but not typically antimalware alerts.
D. Data leakage: Relevant for privacy concerns but not directly related to antimalware alerts.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
"Securing Open Source Libraries," OWASP
"Managing Third-Party Software Security Risks," Gartner Research
Question # 7
A security analyst received a notification from a cloud service provider regarding an attack
detected on a web server The cloud service provider shared the following information about
the attack:
• The attack came from inside the network.
• The attacking source IP was from the internal vulnerability scanners.
• The scanner is not configured to target the cloud servers.
Which of the following actions should the security analyst take first?
| | A. Create an allow list for the vulnerability scanner IPs m order to avoid false positives | | B. Configure the scan policy to avoid targeting an out-of-scope host | | C. Set network behavior analysis rules | | D. Quarantine the scanner sensor to perform a forensic analysis |
D. Quarantine the scanner sensor to perform a forensic analysis
Explanation:
When a security analyst receives a notification about an attack that appears
to originate from an internal vulnerability scanner, it suggests that the scanner itself might
have been compromised. This situation is critical because a compromised scanner can
potentially conduct unauthorized scans, leak sensitive information, or execute malicious
actions within the network. The appropriate first action involves containing the threat to
prevent further damage and allow for a thorough investigation.
Here’s why quarantining the scanner sensor is the best immediate action:
Containment and Isolation: Quarantining the scanner will immediately prevent it
from continuing any malicious activity or scans. This containment is crucial to
protect the rest of the network from potential harm.
Forensic Analysis: By isolating the scanner, a forensic analysis can be performed
to understand how it was compromised, what actions it took, and what data or
systems might have been affected. This analysis will provide valuable insights into
the nature of the attack and help in taking appropriate remedial actions.
Preventing Further Attacks: If the scanner is allowed to continue operating, it might
execute more unauthorized actions, leading to greater damage. Quarantine
ensures that the threat is neutralized promptly.
Root Cause Identification: A forensic analysis can help identify vulnerabilities in the
scanner’s configuration, software, or underlying system that allowed the
compromise. This information is essential for preventing future incidents.
Other options, while potentially useful in the long term, are not appropriate as immediate
actions in this scenario:
A. Create an allow list for the vulnerability scanner IPs to avoid false positives:
This action addresses false positives but does not mitigate the immediate threat
posed by the compromised scanner.
B. Configure the scan policy to avoid targeting an out-of-scope host: This step is
preventive for future scans but does not deal with the current incident where the
scanner is already compromised.
C. Set network behavior analysis rules: While useful for ongoing monitoring and
detection, this does not address the immediate need to stop the compromised
scanner’s activities.
In conclusion, the first and most crucial action is to quarantine the scanner sensor to halt
any malicious activity and perform a forensic analysis to understand the scope and nature
of the compromise. This step ensures that the threat is contained and provides a basis for
further remediation efforts.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
NIST Special Publication 800-61 Revision 2, "Computer Security Incident Handling
Guide"
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