Question # 1
A company wants to invest in research capabilities with the goal to operationalize the
research output. Which of the following is the best option for a security architect to
recommend? | A. Dark web monitoring | B. Threat intelligence platform | C. Honeypots | D. Continuous adversary emulation |
B. Threat intelligence platform
Explanation:
Investing in a threat intelligence platform is the best option for a company looking to
operationalize research output. A threat intelligence platform helps in collecting,
processing, and analyzing threat data to provide actionable insights. These platforms
integrate data from various sources, including dark web monitoring, honeypots, and other
security tools, to offer a comprehensive view of the threat landscape.
Why a Threat Intelligence Platform?
Data Integration: It consolidates data from multiple sources, including dark web
monitoring and honeypots, making it easier to analyze and derive actionable
insights.
Actionable Insights: Provides real-time alerts and reports on potential threats,
helping the organization take proactive measures.
Operational Efficiency: Streamlines the process of threat detection and response,
allowing the security team to focus on critical issues.
Research and Development: Facilitates the operationalization of research output
by providing a platform for continuous monitoring and analysis of emerging threats.
Other options, while valuable, do not offer the same level of integration and
operationalization capabilities:
A. Dark web monitoring: Useful for specific threat intelligence but lacks
comprehensive operationalization.
C. Honeypots: Effective for detecting and analyzing specific attack vectors but not
for broader threat intelligence.
D. Continuous adversary emulation: Important for testing defenses but not for
integrating and operationalizing threat intelligence.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
"Threat Intelligence Platforms," Gartner Research
NIST Special Publication 800-150, "Guide to Cyber Threat Information Sharing"
Question # 2
A security analyst received a notification from a cloud service provider regarding an attack
detected on a web server The cloud service provider shared the following information about
the attack:
• The attack came from inside the network.
• The attacking source IP was from the internal vulnerability scanners.
• The scanner is not configured to target the cloud servers.
Which of the following actions should the security analyst take first?
| A. Create an allow list for the vulnerability scanner IPs m order to avoid false positives | B. Configure the scan policy to avoid targeting an out-of-scope host | C. Set network behavior analysis rules | D. Quarantine the scanner sensor to perform a forensic analysis |
D. Quarantine the scanner sensor to perform a forensic analysis
Explanation:
When a security analyst receives a notification about an attack that appears
to originate from an internal vulnerability scanner, it suggests that the scanner itself might
have been compromised. This situation is critical because a compromised scanner can
potentially conduct unauthorized scans, leak sensitive information, or execute malicious
actions within the network. The appropriate first action involves containing the threat to
prevent further damage and allow for a thorough investigation.
Here’s why quarantining the scanner sensor is the best immediate action:
Containment and Isolation: Quarantining the scanner will immediately prevent it
from continuing any malicious activity or scans. This containment is crucial to
protect the rest of the network from potential harm.
Forensic Analysis: By isolating the scanner, a forensic analysis can be performed
to understand how it was compromised, what actions it took, and what data or
systems might have been affected. This analysis will provide valuable insights into
the nature of the attack and help in taking appropriate remedial actions.
Preventing Further Attacks: If the scanner is allowed to continue operating, it might
execute more unauthorized actions, leading to greater damage. Quarantine
ensures that the threat is neutralized promptly.
Root Cause Identification: A forensic analysis can help identify vulnerabilities in the
scanner’s configuration, software, or underlying system that allowed the
compromise. This information is essential for preventing future incidents.
Other options, while potentially useful in the long term, are not appropriate as immediate
actions in this scenario:
A. Create an allow list for the vulnerability scanner IPs to avoid false positives:
This action addresses false positives but does not mitigate the immediate threat
posed by the compromised scanner.
B. Configure the scan policy to avoid targeting an out-of-scope host: This step is
preventive for future scans but does not deal with the current incident where the
scanner is already compromised.
C. Set network behavior analysis rules: While useful for ongoing monitoring and
detection, this does not address the immediate need to stop the compromised
scanner’s activities.
In conclusion, the first and most crucial action is to quarantine the scanner sensor to halt
any malicious activity and perform a forensic analysis to understand the scope and nature
of the compromise. This step ensures that the threat is contained and provides a basis for
further remediation efforts.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
NIST Special Publication 800-61 Revision 2, "Computer Security Incident Handling
Guide"
Question # 3
An organization wants to implement a platform to better identify which specific assets are affected by a given vulnerability. Which of the following components provides the best foundation to achieve this goal?
| A. SASE
| B. CMDB
| C. SBoM
| D. SLM
|
B. CMDB
Explanation:
A Configuration Management Database (CMDB) provides the best foundation for identifying which specific assets are affected by a given vulnerability. A CMDB maintains detailed information about the IT environment, including hardware, software, configurations, and relationships between assets. This comprehensive view allows organizations to quickly identify and address vulnerabilities affecting specific assets.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide: Discusses the role of CMDBs in asset management and vulnerability identification.
ITIL (Information Technology Infrastructure Library) Framework: Recommends the use of CMDBs for effective configuration and asset management.
"Configuration Management Best Practices" by Bob Aiello and Leslie Sachs: Covers the importance of CMDBs in managing IT assets and addressing vulnerabilities.
Question # 4
A security review revealed that not all of the client proxy traffic is being captured. Which of
the following architectural changes best enables the capture of traffic for analysis? | A. Adding an additional proxy server to each segmented VLAN | B. Setting up a reverse proxy for client logging at the gateway | C. Configuring a span port on the perimeter firewall to ingest logs | D. Enabling client device logging and system event auditing |
C. Configuring a span port on the perimeter firewall to ingest logs
Explanation:
Configuring a span port on the perimeter firewall to ingest logs is the best architectural
change to ensure that all client proxy traffic is captured for analysis. Here’s why:
Comprehensive Traffic Capture: A span port (or mirror port) on the perimeter
firewall can capture all inbound and outbound traffic, including traffic that might
bypass the proxy. This ensures that all network traffic is available for analysis.
Centralized Logging: By capturing logs at the perimeter firewall, the organization
can centralize logging and analysis, making it easier to detect and investigate
anomalies.
Minimal Disruption: Implementing a span port is a non-intrusive method that does
not require significant changes to the network architecture, thus minimizing
disruption to existing services.
Question # 5
After some employees were caught uploading data to online personal storage accounts, a
company becomes concerned about data leaks related to sensitive, internal
documentation. Which of the following would the company most likely do to decrease this
type of risk?
| A. Improve firewall rules to avoid access to those platforms. | B. Implement a cloud-access security broker | C. Create SIEM rules to raise alerts for access to those platforms | D. Deploy an internet proxy that filters certain domains
|
B. Implement a cloud-access security broker
Explanation:
A Cloud Access Security Broker (CASB) is a security policy enforcement
point placed between cloud service consumers and cloud service providers to combine and
interject enterprise security policies as cloud-based resources are accessed. Implementing
a CASB provides several benefits:
A. Improve firewall rules to avoid access to those platforms: This can help but is
not as effective or comprehensive as a CASB.
B. Implement a cloud-access security broker: A CASB can provide visibility into
cloud application usage, enforce data security policies, and protect against data
leaks by monitoring and controlling access to cloud services. It also provides
advanced features like data encryption, data loss prevention (DLP), and
compliance monitoring.
C. Create SIEM rules to raise alerts for access to those platforms: This helps in
monitoring but does not prevent data leaks.
D. Deploy an internet proxy that filters certain domains: This can block access to
specific sites but lacks the granular control and visibility provided by a CASB.
Implementing a CASB is the most comprehensive solution to decrease the risk of data
leaks by providing visibility, control, and enforcement of security policies for cloud services.
References:
CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
Gartner, "Magic Quadrant for Cloud Access Security Brokers"
NIST SP 800-144, "Guidelines on Security and Privacy in Public Cloud
Computing"
Question # 6
An organization wants to create a threat model to identity vulnerabilities in its infrastructure.
Which of the following, should be prioritized first? | A. External-facing Infrastructure with known exploited vulnerabilities | B. Internal infrastructure with high-seventy and Known exploited vulnerabilities | C. External facing Infrastructure with a low risk score and no known exploited vulnerabilities | D. External-facing infrastructure with a high risk score that can only be exploited with local
access to the resource |
A. External-facing Infrastructure with known exploited vulnerabilities
Explanation:
When creating a threat model to identify vulnerabilities in an organization's infrastructure,
prioritizing external-facing infrastructure with known exploited vulnerabilities is critical.
Here’s why:
Exposure to Attack: External-facing infrastructure is directly exposed to the
internet, making it a primary target for attackers. Any vulnerabilities in this layer
pose an immediate risk to the organization's security.
Known Exploited Vulnerabilities: Vulnerabilities that are already known and
exploited in the wild are of higher concern because they are actively being used by
attackers. Addressing these vulnerabilities reduces the risk of exploitation
significantly.
Risk Mitigation: By prioritizing external-facing infrastructure with known exploited
vulnerabilities, the organization can mitigate the most immediate and impactful
threats, thereby improving overall security posture.
Question # 7
A security analyst discovered requests associated with IP addresses known for born
legitimate 3nd bot-related traffic. Which of the following should the analyst use to determine
whether the requests are malicious? | A. User-agent string | B. Byte length of the request | C. Web application headers | D. HTML encoding field |
A. User-agent string
Explanation:
The user-agent string can provide valuable information to distinguish between legitimate
and bot-related traffic. It contains details about the browser, device, and sometimes the
operating system of the client making the request.
Why Use User-Agent String?
Identify Patterns: User-agent strings can help identify patterns that are typical of
bots or legitimate users.
Block Malicious Bots: Many bots use known user-agent strings, and identifying
these can help block malicious requests.
Anomalies Detection: Anomalous user-agent strings can indicate spoofing
attempts or malicious activity.
Other options provide useful information but may not be as effective for initial determination
of the nature of the request:
B. Byte length of the request: This can indicate anomalies but does not provide
detailed information about the client.
C. Web application headers: While useful, they may not provide enough distinction
between legitimate and bot traffic.
D. HTML encoding field: This is not typically used for identifying the nature of the
request.
References:
CompTIA SecurityX Study Guide
"User-Agent Analysis for Security," OWASP
NIST Special Publication 800-94, "Guide to Intrusion Detection and Prevention
Systems (IDPS)"
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