Question # 1
| After an audit, an administrator discovers all users have access to confidential data on a file server. Which of the following should the administrator use to restrict access to the data quickly? | | A. Group Policy | | B. Content filtering | | C. Data loss prevention | | D. Access control lists |
D. Access control lists
Explanation: Access control lists (ACLs) are rules that specify which users or groups can
access which resources on a file server. They can help restrict access to confidential data by granting or denying permissions based on the identity or role of the user. In this case, the administrator can use ACLs to quickly modify the access rights of the users and prevent them from accessing the data they are not authorized to see. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 308 1
Question # 2
| After a recent ransomware attack on a company's system, an administrator reviewed the log files. Which of the following control types did the administrator use?
| | A. Compensating | | B. Detective | | C. Preventive | | D. Corrective |
B. Detective
Explanation: Detective controls are security measures that are designed to identify and monitor any malicious activity or anomalies on a system or network. They can help to discover the source, scope, and impact of an attack, and provide evidence for further analysis or investigation. Detective controls include log files, security audits, intrusion detection systems, network monitoring tools, and antivirus software. In this case, the administrator used log files as a detective control to review the ransomware attack on the company’s system. Log files are records of events and activities that occur on a system or network, such as user actions, system errors, network traffic, and security alerts. They can provide valuable information for troubleshooting, auditing, and forensics.
References: Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications, under “About the exam”, bullet point 3: “Operate with an awareness of applicable regulations and policies, including principles of governance, risk, and compliance.” CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 1, page 14: “Detective controls are designed to identify and monitor any malicious activity or anomalies on a system or network.”
Control Types – CompTIA Security+ SY0-401: 2.1 - Professor Messer IT …, under “Detective Controls”: “Detective controls are security measures that are designed to identify and monitor any malicious activity or anomalies on a system or network.”
Question # 3
| An administrator notices that several users are logging in from suspicious IP addresses. After speaking with the users, the administrator determines that the employees were not logging in from those IP addresses and resets the affected users’ passwords. Which of the following should the administrator implement to prevent this type of attack from succeeding in the future? | | A. Multifactor authentication | | B. Permissions assignment | | C. Access management | | D. Password complexity |
A. Multifactor authentication
Explanation: The correct answer is A because multifactor authentication (MFA) is a method of verifying a user’s identity by requiring more than one factor, such as something the user knows (e.g., password), something the user has (e.g., token), or something the user is (e.g., biometric). MFA can prevent unauthorized access even if the user’s password is compromised, as the attacker would need to provide another factor to log in. The other options are incorrect because they do not address the root cause of the attack, which is weak authentication. Permissions assignment (B) is the process of granting or denying access to resources based on the user’s role or identity. Access management © is the process of controlling who can access what and under what conditions. Password complexity (D) is the requirement of using strong passwords that are hard to guess or crack, but it does not prevent an attacker from using a stolen password.
Question # 4
| A business received a small grant to migrate its infrastructure to an off-premises solution.
Which of the following should be considered first? | | A. Security of cloud providers | | B. Cost of implementation | | C. Ability of engineers | | D. Security of architecture |
D. Security of architecture
Explanation: Security of architecture is the process of designing and implementing a
secure infrastructure that meets the business objectives and requirements. Security of
architecture should be considered first when migrating to an off-premises solution, such as
cloud computing, because it can help to identify and mitigate the potential risks and
challenges associated with the migration, such as data security, compliance, availability,
scalability, and performance. Security of architecture is different from security of cloud
providers, which is the process of evaluating and selecting a trustworthy and reliable cloud
service provider that can meet the security and operational needs of the business. Security
of architecture is also different from cost of implementation, which is the amount of money
required to migrate and maintain the infrastructure in the cloud. Security of architecture is
also different from ability of engineers, which is the level of skill and knowledge of the IT
staff who are responsible for the migration and management of the cloud
infrastructure.
Question # 5
| An IT manager is increasing the security capabilities of an organization after a data classification initiative determined that sensitive data could be exfiltrated from the environment. Which of the following solutions would mitigate the risk? | | A. XDR | | B. SPF | | C. DLP | | D. DMARC |
C. DLP
Explanation: To mitigate the risk of sensitive data being exfiltrated from the environment,
the IT manager should implement a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) solution. DLP monitors and controls the movement of sensitive data, ensuring that unauthorized transfers are blocked and potential data breaches are prevented. XDR (Extended Detection and Response) is useful for threat detection across multiple environments but doesn't specifically address data exfiltration. SPF (Sender Policy Framework) helps prevent email spoofing, not data exfiltration. DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting & Conformance) also addresses email security and spoofing, not data exfiltration.
Question # 6
| Which of the following should a security operations center use to improve its incident response procedure? | | A. Playbooks | | B. Frameworks | | C. Baselines | | D. Benchmarks |
A. Playbooks
Explanation: A playbook is a documented set of procedures that outlines the step-by-step response to specific types of cybersecurity incidents. Security Operations Centers (SOCs) use playbooks to improve consistency, efficiency, and accuracy during incident response. Playbooks help ensure that the correct procedures are followed based on the type of incident, ensuring swift and effective remediation. Frameworks provide general guidelines for implementing security but are not specific enough for incident response procedures. Baselines represent normal system behavior and are used for anomaly detection, not incident response guidance. Benchmarks are performance standards and are not directly related to incident response.
Question # 7
| Which of the following would be the greatest concern for a company that is aware of the
consequences of non-compliance with government regulations? | | A. Right to be forgotten | | B. Sanctions | | C. External compliance reporting | | D. Attestation |
B. Sanctions
Sanctions imposed for non-compliance can include fines, legal actions, and loss of
business licenses. These pose a significant financial and reputational risk to organizations.
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What types of jobs can I pursue with a CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 certification?
The CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 certification opens doors to various roles, such as Security Analyst, Systems Administrator, Network Administrator, and Security Consultant, among others in the IT security field.
How does the CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 certification enhance my career prospects?
This certification demonstrates your foundational cybersecurity knowledge, making you a more attractive candidate for IT security roles and potentially leading to higher salary offers and advancement opportunities.
Are there any specific industries that value the CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 certification more?
While valuable across various sectors, the CompTIA Security+ certification is particularly recognized in government, finance, healthcare, and technology industries, where data security is a critical concern.
Can the CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 certification help me get a job in government cybersecurity?
Yes, the CompTIA Security+ certification is often a requirement for many government cybersecurity roles, especially in departments that require staff to handle sensitive information.
What is the average salary for jobs requiring a CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 certification?
Salaries vary based on location, experience, and the specific job role, but generally, roles requiring this certification offer competitive salaries in the IT security sector.
How long does the value of the CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 certification last in terms of career growth?
The CompTIA Security+ certification is valid for three years, but its value in enhancing your career can last much longer, especially when combined with ongoing education and work experience.
Does the CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 certification require any continuing education to maintain its validity?
To maintain the certification, CompTIA requires 50 Continuing
Education Units (CEUs) every three years, which ensures that your skills
and knowledge remain current in the rapidly evolving field of
cybersecurity.
What are the major differences between the CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 and SY0-701 exams?
| Aspect |
CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 |
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 |
| Content Focus |
Balanced coverage of security concepts, risk management, and network security, among others. |
Enhanced focus on practical skills, hands-on experience, and newer topics like hybrid/cloud operations and security. |
| Exam Format |
Mix of multiple-choice and performance-based questions. |
Similar format with more scenario-based questions for practical skills assessment. |
| New Topics |
Covers the fundamentals of cybersecurity as of its release. |
Includes advanced threat protection, incident response, and the latest best practices in risk management and mitigation. |
| Difficulty Level |
Designed to meet the cybersecurity challenges at the time of its release. |
Potentially more challenging, with an emphasis on practical, real-world scenarios and current complexities in cybersecurity. |
| Industry Relevance |
Relevant to the cybersecurity landscape during its validity period. |
More aligned with current and emerging trends in the cybersecurity landscape, especially in cloud and IoT security. |
| Study Material Relevance |
Study materials specifically for SY0-601 are necessary. |
Requires updated study materials that cover the new topics and revised content areas of SY0-701. |
| Target Audience |
Aimed at professionals seeking foundational cybersecurity knowledge. |
Targeted at those looking to stay current with the evolving field and acquire hands-on skills. |
What topics are covered in the SY0-701 Exam?
Key topics include threats, attacks, and vulnerabilities; technologies and tools; architecture and design; identity and access management; risk management; and cryptography and PKI.
Are there any prerequisites for taking the Security+ SY0-701 Exam?
While there are no formal prerequisites, it is recommended to have foundational knowledge in IT security and at least two years of experience in IT administration with a security focus.
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